english sample paper term 1 class 10th

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• CBSE Class 10 Sample Papers
• CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 English

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English with Solutions 2023-24

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English are available for the 2023-24 exam. Most of the students find CBSE Class 10 English paper lengthy. Only a few students were able to solve the complete paper in the allocated time duration. So, to help students make their preparation easy, we have provided the CBSE Class 10 English Sample Papers. By solving these English Sample Papers of Class 10, students get well-versed in the new exam pattern and question paper format. We have also compiled CBSE Sample Papers of 2016 to 2024 for Class 10 English with Solutions for students’ convenience.

These CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English are per the exam pattern and follow the CBSE Class 10 Syllabus. We have also provided the solution pdf along with the CBSE English Sample Paper Class 10. Students must solve them to get good practice before the board exams. These English Sample Papers for Class 10 with Solutions will boost the confidence level of students and help them ace the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English 2023-24 are provided by the CBSE board to help students with their exam preparation. In a student’s life, Class 10 is considered a career shaper. The Class 10 board results decide the academic performance. Students need to study all subjects thoroughly to score an overall good percentage. Like any other subject, English is also important in the CBSE Class 10 syllabus . Students always mistake considering English the easiest subject compared to other subjects. But, practising CBSE English Sample Paper Class 10 can influence the weightage of the score. Students can use the sample paper for 2023-24 for free using the link below.

The sample papers for 2022-23 are given here to help students to prepare for the board exams accordingly.

We have provided the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English 2022 Term 2 with Solutions. Along with Term 2, a sample paper for Term 1 English is also provided.

Solving the CBSE Sample Papers for the Class 10 English exam will help students to understand the question paper pattern. By practising the questions, they will get to know the difficulty level of the exam and the kind of questions framed in the examination. This CBSE Sample Paper 2023 Class 10 English with Solutions is provided by the board on the official website to help students in their exam preparation. The actual question paper will be similar to the English Sample Paper 2023-24. So, practising these CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English will help students to give an idea of the actual question paper pattern.

Download CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English

Here, we have separately provided the CBSE Class 10 Sample Papers for English Language and Literature and also for English Communicative. Students can download the CBSE English Sample Paper Class 10 with solutions in pdf format for free. These papers are the official CBSE sample papers released by the CBSE before the board exam so that students get acquainted with the exam pattern. The step-by-step detailed solution is provided in the pdf format under the marking scheme and answers pdf for each CBSE Sample Paper for Class 10 English. This will help students to understand the answer writing skills from an exam perspective, and thus they can fetch more marks in the board exams.

The year-wise CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English Communicative are provided below for students. They must download and solve them. Practising these CBSE English Sample Paper Class 10 will help them in finishing the paper on time as they get to know how much to write for a particular answer.

Advantages of Solving the CBSE Class 10 English Sample Papers

Below, we have listed a few advantages of solving the CBSE Class 10 Sample Papers . Students will understand how they can increase their scores by practising CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English by going through them.

• It gives students an idea about the question paper’s pattern, time duration, etc.
• Solving the English sample papers will boost the student’s confidence, which will help them score good marks.
• It will help students to get an idea of which topic to focus more upon.
• These CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English are designed according to the CBSE Class 10 syllabus of English and cover all the important topics.
• It will help students to complete the paper on time.
• Solving the CBSE English Sample Paper Class 10 is a good revision for students before the board exams.

We hope students must have found this page on “CBSE Board Sample Papers for Class 10 English” useful in their exam preparation. Stay tuned for further updates on CBSE and other competitive exams. To get interactive study videos, subscribe to BYJU’S YouTube channel.

Frequently Asked Questions on CBSE Class 10 English Sample Papers

Is it possible to score full marks in cbse class 10 english exam.

Since the Class 10 English exam is a language-based paper, it could be difficult to score full marks. Constant practice and vast vocabulary knowledge can impress the examiner and help score high grades.

Has the pattern for CBSE Class 10 English exam changed?

You can find the latest QP pattern and Sample QPs in CBSE Class 10 English.

Are English Sample papers available for the 2023-24 exam separately?

You can find the 2023-24 Sample QPs along with the specific marking scheme on our BYJU’S webpage.

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CBSE Sample Paper 2023-24 Class 10

The Central Board of Secondary Education has released the CBSE Sample Paper 2023-24 Class 10 for all subjects on 16th September 2022. These newly released sample papers are available here in PDF for free of cost.Those who are studying in CBSE Class 10th this year and will appear in the upcoming board exam should solve these newly released CBSE Class 10 Sample Papers. We advise this, because these sample papers are the best study material to understand the exam pattern and types of questions for the upcoming Class 10th board examination. It is noted, this year the board has removed the term wise exam and so the question papers are released based on the new exam pattern: Single exam in a year.Those students who were in doubt or confusion for the exam preparation should begin their Class 10 board exam preparation using these latest CBSE Class 10 Sample papers 2023-24 for all subjects.

The mid term exam is about to begin and this time the students are in a bit of pressure on how to be prepared for this exam. So, here we have provided the CBSE Sample Paper 2023-24 for Class 10.

The CBSE Sample Papers of class 10th will help students to understand marks distribution and question paper pattern to be prepared for the upcoming examinations.

However, to know the exact exam pattern of CBSE Class 10th, 2023-24 students will have to wait for a while since CBSE Sample paper class 10 is not released yet, But syllabus can help a bit in it.

CBSE Sample Paper 2023-24 Class 10 With Solutions

The sample papers of class 10th are prepared based on the exam pattern and the total weightage, where mixed types of questions are given.

In the mixed questions there are MCQs, Short answer types questions, fill in the blanks and long answer types of questions.

Therefore, our subject experts have solved the complete CBSE Sample Paper 2023-24 Class 10. Referring to this CBSE Sample Paper 2023-24 Class 10 With Solutions will assist students to understand the answering methods for each type of question.

Also, the solutions clear out the doubts raised in the questions. Not only this but 10th standard students can firstly solve the entire papers themselves and then they can choose to cross check their answers with the help of given solutions. The links to download the CBSE Sample paper 2023-24 class 10 PDF is available on this website.

• CBSE Sample Paper 2023-24 Class 10 for Maths

The basic and standard Maths CBSE Class 10 Sample Papers 2023-24 released by the CBSE board are available here to download. Students looking for ways to prepare for the Maths examination should definitely go through the officially released CBSE Sample Paper 2023-24 Class 10 for Maths.

Mathematics Basic - CBSE Model Question Papers - 2023 with Marking Scheme

Mathematics Basic - CBSE Model Question Papers (Term-2) - 2022 with Marking Scheme

Mathematics Standard - CBSE Model Question Papers (Term-2) - 2022 with Marking Scheme

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Mathematics (Basic) - (Term-1) - 2022 with Marking Scheme

Mathematics (Standard) - (Term-1) - 2022 with Marking Scheme

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Mathematics Basic - (Term-1) - 2022 with Marking Scheme

Mathematics Standard - (Term-1) - 2022 with Marking Scheme

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Mathematics Basic - CBSE Model Question Papers (Term-1) - 2022 with Marking Scheme

Mathematics Standard - CBSE Model Question Papers (Term-1) - 2022 with Marking Scheme

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Mathematics (Standard) - CBSE Model Question Papers 2021

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• CBSE Sample Paper 2023-24 Class 10 for Science

In Class 10, Science is a subject which has three different subject combinations that are Physics, Chemistry and Biology. Anyone who wants to assess their learning of all these subjects at once should try CBSE Sample Paper 2023-24 Class 10 for Science.

Links to download the PDF file or CBSE Class 10 Science Sample Papers 2023-24 are available below. In addition to the latest sample papers, we have here the old sample question papers of Class 10 Science.

Science - CBSE Model Question Papers - 2023 with Marking Scheme

Science - CBSE Model Question Papers (Term-2) - 2022 with Marking Scheme

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Science - (Term-1) - 2022 with Marking Scheme

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Science - CBSE Model Question Papers 2021

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• CBSE Sample Paper 2023-24 Class 10 for Social Science

A direct link to access the CBSE Sample Paper 2023-24 Class 10 for Social Science subject is mentioned here in this section. The latest sample papers of Class 10 Social Science enable students to understand what the upcoming board examination question papers will look like and what types of questions will be asked as well as the question paper pattern, marking scheme and much more. 

Social Science - CBSE Model Question Papers - 2023 with Marking Scheme

Social Science - CBSE Model Question Papers (Term-2) - 2022 with Marking Scheme

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• CBSE Sample Paper 2023-24 Class 10 for Hindi

Hindi A and Hindi B CBSE Class 10 Sample Papers 2023-24 are available here at Selfstudys.com The link mentioned below in this section contains the PDF file. Hindi sample papers that are available here are for all the students studying in CBSE Class 10. Studying and practising questions from these will help students understand how well they have prepared for their Hindi examination. 

It will also assist them understand the types of questions that a board exam question paper will contain.

Hindi A - CBSE Model Question Papers - 2023 with Marking Scheme

Hindi B - CBSE Model Question Papers - 2023 with Marking Scheme

Hindi A - CBSE Model Question Papers (Term-2) - 2022 with Marking Scheme

Hindi B - CBSE Model Question Papers (Term-2) - 2022 with Marking Scheme

हिंदी A (Term-2) 2022 सेट - 3

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Hindi A - CBSE Model Question Papers 2021

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• CBSE Sample Paper 2023-24 Class 10 for Computer Application

The PDF file of the CBSE Class 10 Computer Application Sample Papers 2023-24 are available here for free of cost. If you are in the early stage of board exam preparation, you should first complete the syllabus and then should try to solve the Computer Application Sample Papers of CBSE Class 10. Links to access the CBSE Class 10 Computer Application Sample Papers are these:

Computer Application - CBSE Model Question Papers - 2023 with Marking Scheme

Computer Application - CBSE Model Question Papers (Term-2) - 2022 with Marking Scheme

Computer Application - (Term-1) - 2022 with Marking Scheme

• CBSE Sample Paper 2023-24 Class 10 for English

Both the sample papers of CBSE Class 10 English: L&L and Communicative are curated and prepared by the Selfstudys.com expert teams. For ease, we have shared here the direct links to access the PDF file free of cost. Note that, the English Sample Papers of CBSE Class 10 are a blueprint of actual board exam question papers. Therefore, whatever the marking scheme and question paper pattern you will find in the Sample Papers of CBSE Class 10 English PDF here, it will be the same in the upcoming Board examination. 

For example, there will be a total of 3 sections: Reading, Grammar and Writing and the Literature.

English - CBSE Model Question Papers - 2023 with Marking Scheme

English - CBSE Model Question Papers (Term-2) - 2022 with Marking Scheme

English (Language & Literature) (Term-2) 2022 Set - 19

English (Language & Literature) (Term-2) 2022 Set - 18

English (Language & Literature) (Term-2) 2022 Set - 17

English (Language & Literature) (Term-2) 2022 Set - 16

English (Language & Literature) (Term-2) 2022 Set - 15

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English (Language & Literature) (Term-2) 2022 Set - 13

English (Language & Literature) (Term-2) 2022 Set - 12

English (Language & Literature) (Term-2) 2022 Set - 11

English (Language & Literature) (Term-2) 2022 Set - 10

English (Language & Literature) (Term-2) 2022 Set - 9

English (Language & Literature) (Term-2) 2022 Set - 8

English (Language & Literature) (Term-2) 2022 Set - 7

English (Language & Literature) (Term-2) 2022 Set - 6

English (Language & Literature) (Term-2) 2022 Set - 5

English (Language & Literature) (Term-2) 2022 Set - 4

English (Language & Literature) (Term-2) 2022 Set - 3

English (Language & Literature) (Term-2) 2022 Set - 2

English (Language & Literature) (Term-2) 2022 Set - 1

English - (Term-1) - 2022 with Marking Scheme

English (Term-1) 2021-22 Set - 1

English (Term-1) 2021-22 Set - 2

English (Term-1) 2021-22 Set - 3

English (Term-1) 2021-22 Set - 4

English (Term-1) 2021-22 Set - 5

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English (Term-1) 2021-22 Set - 9

English (Term-1) 2021-22 Set - 10

• CBSE Sample Paper 2023-24 Class 10 for Sanskrit

In Sanskrit Sample Paper 2023-24 Class Class 10 there are four sections. All those 4 sections have different marking schemes. 

If you are looking for CBSE Sample Paper 2023-24 Class 10 for Sanskrit with solutions then here are the links.

Sanskrit - CBSE Model Question Papers - 2023 with Marking Scheme

Sanskrit - CBSE Model Question Papers (Term-2) - 2022 with Marking Scheme

संस्कृत (Term-2) 2022 सेट - 3

संस्कृत (Term-2) 2022 सेट - 2

संस्कृत (Term-2) 2022 सेट - 1

Sanskrit - (Term-1) - 2022 with Marking Scheme

Subject Wise CBSE Sample Paper 2022 Class 10 In PDF

There are Mathematics, Science, Social Science, Hindi, English etc, subjects a CBSE class 10th student has to study. Since they are prescribed to study these subjects they need to prepare for all these subjects too.

That is why Subject Wise CBSE Sample Paper 2022 Class 10 In PDF are available here for free of cost.

Referring to these subject wise sample papers, a student can identify the types of questions the board question may contain. Also, solving the sample papers for all subjects enables the candidates to know how the marks are distributed across the questions.

Therefore, we recommend here to download CBSE Sample paper class 10 in PDF from the available links here on this page.

Understand Marking Scheme of CBSE Class 10th Using Sample Papers

When students start their study in class 10th, they do it without thinking about the marking scheme. However, when the exam time comes closer they begin to think about what are the important topics to study, which question will help me to score more marks, and etc.

Students can learn about the total weightage, marks distributions and many other relevant things from the CBSE Class 10 Syllabus but, the Sample papers are the best way to know this.

Because with the help of this paper, students can not only learn about the marking scheme but how the marks are given to each type of question.

The sample papers help students to be specific when solving, so that students can better Understand Marking Scheme of CBSE Class 10th Using Sample Papers.

What Makes the CBSE Class 10 Sample Papers So Unique than Other Study Materials

Across all the CBSE Class 10 Study Materials the sample papers are a unique study resource then others. It is because the sample papers are a set of question papers in the form of a blueprint of board papers.

The sample papers not only help candidates in revision but aid them to practice lots of questions and do self-assessment. These are the things that make it unique then others.

Advantages of Solving CBSE Sample paper 2023-24 Class 10 PDF

When students are preparing for their exams, their time is most important and that is why here we have listed some of the Advantages of Solving CBSE Sample paper 2023-24 class 10 PDF, so that they won’t need to waste time on redundant study materials.

Here’re the advantages:-

• The sample papers make students aware of the difficulty level of questions so that they can be prepared to answer such questions in the actual exam.
• It boosts the confidence of a candidate when they are in the preparation process. Doing so enables the candidates to learn the answering methods to solve all types of questions as per the given guidelines.
• Increases the speed and accuracy - this is what matters the most during the exam. So, solving lots of CBSE Class 10 sample papers help students to work on their answer writing speed and use the solutions to increase the accuracy.

How To Download CBSE Sample Paper 2023-24 Class 10 With Solutions

To download CBSE Sample Paper 2023-24 Class 10 With Solutions follow these simple steps:

• Download Selfstudys App or open Selfstudys.com on your phone or laptop device then
• Click on CBSE and than “Sample Papers”
• Now a new page will open, select your class: 10 and
• Search your subject or choose from the given option to access the CBSE Sample Papers 2023-24 Class 10
• From there you can access all the sample papers in PDF file format.

CBSE Class 10 sample papers are nothing but the collection of questions based on the actual CBSE exam pattern. In addition to it, the sample question papers allow students to be familiar with the types of questions that can be asked in the board examination.

The Central Board of Secondary Education releases the class 10 sample papers for all subjects. Whether it is Maths, Science or whatever subject it is, a board candidate can access sample question papers for each subject they have been prescribed to study.

Yes, the CBSE provides the answer key with step wise marking of class 10 sample papers that is known as marking scheme.

Since sample papers are prepared by many private institutes, we recommend students to pay close attention to the officially released Sample paper of CBSE Class 10 firstly, and then go through other sample papers.

The CBSE officially releases the CBSE Sample Papers of class 10th so that students can learn about various aspects of actual question papers. However, it is not advised for students to rely on it rather try to solve more than one sample papers and lots of previous year question papers too. It will surely help in scoring good marks in 10th board exam.

You can easily get the CBSE sample paper For Class 10 through this link or by visiting the Selfstudys website or official CBSE website.

There is a slight difference between question bank and sample paper: Question banks are a collection of many questions that have more or less possibility to ask in the exam. However, Sample papers are released by the official website to help students to understand the exam pattern, marks distributions and an idea of how many types of questions can be asked in the final board examination.

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Home » 10th Class » Class 10 English Mid Term Sample Paper 2023 | Download Term 1 Practice Papers

Class 10 English Mid Term Sample Paper 2023 | Download Term 1 Practice Papers

Class 10 English Mid Term Sample Paper 2023 has been published here. If you are in class 10 and appearing for mid term exams, then download the English sample paper pdf here to prepare. The sample paper for class 10 English for the mid term exam contains questions from the topics taught till midterm from English syllabus to class 10th. Therefore if you solve these questions you will be able to get good marks in your class 10 mid term exams.

Class 10 English Mid Term Sample Paper 2023

The Class 10 Sample Paper 2023 English Mid Term PDF is given below. You can solve the English paper here. Or you can also download the pdf to practice the class 10 English questions anytime.

If you are studying in CBSE board or any state board where NCERT syllabus is referred these NCERT Class 10 Sample Papers are most important for your upcoming term 1 examination. In some schools Mid Term exams are also known as Term 1 examination or half yearly examination.

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Get free online mock test for Class 10 for all important topics. It includes the questions that are based upon the latest syllabus. AglaSem Mock Test for Class 10 can be very helpful for your upcoming exams. Try Now!

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If you have any queries on Class 10 Sample Paper 2023 Mathematics Mid Term then please ask in comments below .

More Class 10 Sample Paper 2023 Mid Term

You can view and download Sample Paper Class 10 Mid Term for each subject from the links given below.

• Class 10 Sample Paper 2023 English Mid Term
• Class 10 Sample Paper 2023 Hindi Mid Term
• Class 10 Sample Paper 2023 Maths Mid Term
• Class 10 Sample Paper 2023 Science Mid Term
• Class 10 Sample Paper 2023 Social Science Mid Term
• Class 10 Sample Paper 2023 Sanskrit Mid Term
• Class 10 Sample Paper 2023 Punjabi Mid Term

All the best for your exams!

Class 10 Hindi Mid Term Sample Paper 2023 | Download Term 1 Practice Papers

Class 11 sociology mid term sample paper 2023 | download half yearly / term 1 practice papers, related posts.

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Class 10 English: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 1 - CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10

Time: 90 .

General Instructions: Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them:

• The Question Paper contains THREE sections. 
• Section A -READING has 18 questions. Attempt a total of 14 questions, as per specific instructions for each question. 
• Section B -WRITING & GRAMMAR has 12 questions. Attempt a total of 10 questions, as per specific instructions for each question. 
• Section C -LITERATURE has 30 questions. Attempt 26 questions, as per specific instructions for each question. 
• All questions carry equal marks. 
• There is no negative marking.

Section - A

I. Read the passage given below. 

• ‘Su’ means number and ‘Duko’ means single. The game of Sudoku has many similarities with the game of life. Sudoku is a puzzle game designed for a single player, much like a crossword puzzle. The puzzle itself is nothing more than a grid of little boxes called ‘cells’. They are stacked nine high and nine wide, making 81 cells in total. 
• The roots of the Sudoku puzzle are in Switzerland. Leonhard Euler created ‘carré latin’ in the 18th century which is similar to a Sudoku puzzle. The first real Sudoku was published in 1979 and was invented by Howard Garns, an American architect.t The real worldwide popularity started in Japan in 1986 after it was published and given the name Sudoku by Nikoli. 
• In life, too, you start with a given set of notions and then work from there on. In Sudoku, you need to follow a set of rules to build up the grid, filling each row, column and box with numbers ranging from one to nine, so much like in life where you have to go on your way without hurting anyone else. Respect every number (person) and things would be fine. 
• While playing, you never think of the end (the result); you just keep working on the numbers and the final result (fruits of action) comes on its own. Extremely difficult puzzles may take hours. Similarly, to achieve the desired results in life, may also take years. The game of Sudoku and the game of life are best played in calm but in a focused state.
• Everything has to go together in a Sudoku grid: the rows, columns and squares. Exactly as in life your duties towards your family, teachers, society and country, all go on simultaneously. In Sudoku, the arrangement of the given numbers is symmetrical. This is instructive in life, on how to maintain steadfast faith, poise and equanimity despite situations when everything turns topsy-turvy. 
• There is a subtle difference between the two, as well. Make a mistake and you can erase it and begin all over again in Sudoku. Not so in life. You can learn a lesson through it and avoid making the same mistake in future. What most people don’t know is that Sudoku is not a mathematical game. It requires absolutely no arithmetic skills, but it does require logical reasoning. As you learn to arrange the numbers correctly, your logical thinking skills improve.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer any eight out of the ten questions by choosing the correct option. Q.1:  A game of Sudoku puzzle has ___________ cells. (a) 80  (b) 81 (c) 82 (d) 83

Correct Answer is Option (b) It has 9×9 small squares that make up a big square having 81 small squares.

Q.2: The first real Sudoku was published in ___________. (a) 1979  (b) 1986 (c) 18th century (d) 19th century

Correct Answer is Option (a) The first real Sudoku was published in 1979 and was invented by Howard Garns, an American architect.

Q.3:  The game of Sudoku is much __________ to the game of life. (a) different (b) similar (c) dissimilar (d) opposite

Correct Answer is Option (b) Everything has to go together in a Sudoku grid: the rows, columns and squares. Exactly as in life.

Q.4:  Which one of the following is false about the Sudoku puzzle? (a) The game has a grid of little boxes called cells. (b) Its roots are in America. (c) A set of rules should be followed to move ahead in the puzzle. (d) The rows, columns and squares – all should go together while playing the game.

Correct Answer is Option (b) The roots of the Sudoku puzzle are in Switzerland. Leonhard Euler created ‘carré latin’ in the 18th century which is similar to a Sudoku puzzle.

Q.5:  The number in the boxes range from ______________________. (a) one to nine (b) three to nine (c) one to six (d) one to ten

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.6:  The game of Sudoku can best be played in __________ state. (a) nervous (b) inattentive (c) leisure (d) focused

Correct Answer is Option (d) The game of Sudoku and the game of life are best played in calm but in a focused state.

Q.7:  Our duties towards our ________________ should go on simultaneously. (a) teachers, family, country (b) family, society, teachers (c) family, teachers, society, country (d) teachers, society, country

Correct Answer is Option (c) In life, your duties towards your family, teachers, society and country, all go on simultaneously.

Q.8:  What is meant by ‘instructive’? (Para 4) (a) Difficult (b) Sad (c) Informative (d) Admiring

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.9:  What is meant by ‘equanimity’? (Para 4) (a) Obsession (b) Self-control (c) mental or emotional stability (d) None of the above

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.10: Find the word opposite in meaning to ‘obvious ’. (Para 5) (a) Erase (b) Lesson (c) Subtle (d) Avoid

II. Read the passage given below.  

• The most characteristic feature of spiders is their ability to produce silken threads. Spiders normally have six finger-like silk glands, called ‘spinnerets’ located beneath their abdomen. To spin a web, the spider squeezes the silk out of its body through two small holes. The liquid silk is thicker than water and dries into a fine thread as soon as it comes in contact with air. Spider silk is much stronger than steel and resists breakage because of its elasticity. It can stretch up to 140 per cent of its original length. The diameter of these silken threads is about 10,000 of an inches. Spiders use this silk to make webs to trap their prey. The egg sacs of some spiders are also made of silk which pre-treats the unborn progeny. Sometimes the spider can also use its silk as a safety feature. A certain species of spider ‘phidippus apacheanecs’ trails a safety line of fine silk as it jumps. It uses the silk line to recover if it misses its target. The silk of ‘Naphils Spider’ is the strongest natural fibre known.
• The spinning of webs is a remarkable example of instinctive behaviour. A spider does not have to learn how to make a web, although spinning itself can be adopted to unique circumstances. For example, ‘orb’ webs are circular in shape and take an hour to build. Funnel spiders spin a net-like entrance to their homes, which helps to trap food. Similarly, trap door spiders dig their homes and spin a trap door out of their silk for trapping insects.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer any six out of the eight questions by choosing the correct option. Q.11:  Spinnerets in a spider are located _________________________________.  (a) near abdomen  (b) beneath their abdomen  (c) in their abdomen  (d) above their abdomen

Correct Answer is Option (b) Spiders normally have six finger-like silk glands, called ‘spinnerets’ located beneath their abdomen.

Q.12:  The liquid silk, that comes out of his body, dries into thread when it comes in contact with ___________. (a) wind (b) water (c) air (d) rain

Correct Answer is Option (c) The liquid silk is thicker than water and dries into a fine thread as soon as it comes in contact with air.

Q.13:  The silk of ‘Naphils Spider’ is the ___________ natural fibre known. (a) strongest (b) healthiest (c) non-risky (d) safest

Q.14:   The silk of ‘Naphils Spider’ is the ___________ natural fibre known. (b) Their silk pre-treats the unborn progeny. (c) Play an important role in controlling pests of cotton. (d) Spiders spin a net-like entrance to their homes.

Correct Answer is Option (c) As integral components of our biosphere, spiders have an intrinsic existence value. They are efficient predators that play an important role in controlling the pests of cotton.

Q.15:  Why are spiders important for birds and wasps? (a)  They are the source of food for them.   (b) Spiders spin a net-like entrance to their homes.   (c)  The spiders can use its silk as a safety feature.   (d)  None of the above

Q.16:  Choose words from paragraph which means, ‘essential’. (a) Unique (b) Integral (c) Progeny (d) Indicator

Correct Answer is Option (b) Funnel spiders spin a net-like entrance to their homes, which helps to trap food.

Q.17:  Funnel spiders spin ___________________ entrance to their homes. (a) circular (b) trap-door (c) net-like (d) square

Q.18:  The web of _________________ is visible in morning dew. (a) Garden spider (b) Fisher spider (c) Grass spider (d) Common House spider

Section - B

III. Answer any five out of the six questions by selecting the most appropriate option for each. Q.19:  The river Ganga _____________ through Haridwar.  (a) is flowing  (b) has been flowing  (c) flows  (d) has flowed

Correct Answer is Option (c) The event relates to the present and a simple statement of fact – use of Simple Present tense.

Q.20:  My family ____________ at the airport tomorrow but I have forgotten at what time the plane gets in. (a) is arriving (b) will be arriving (c) will arrive (d) arrives

Correct Answer is Option (a)  The event is still in progress so use of Continuous tense.

Q.21:  Ramesh and his friends _____________________ going to school. (a) is (b) are (c) will (d) was

Correct Answer is Option (b) When ‘and’ is used, the verb follows the noun used after ‘and’ – here, plural.

Q.22:  Damini is an expert on monuments, but she knows ___________________ about physics. (a) a lot (b) few (c) little 

Correct Answer is Option (c) The use of ‘but’ makes it clear that the second part of the sentence use contradiction adjective to the first part. An expert has too much knowledge, so ‘little’ is used here.

Q.23:  ________________ employees prefer a competent manager to a dumb one. (a) Each (b) Many (c) Little (d) Most

Correct Answer is Option (d) Although a countable noun, yet it is used in an ‘uncountable’ sense here.

Q.24:  This news is ____________ good to be true. (a) for (b) too (c) much (d) so

Correct Answer is Option (b) The use of ‘too…to’ is made to express that the fact cannot be believed to be correct.

IV. Answer any five out of the s ix questions given, with reference to the context below.

Promila Chopra has written a letter to the Editor of The Times of India expressing concern over the adulteration of milk being distributed in the area. Some gaps have been left in the letter and marked as (25), (26), (27), (28), (29) and (30). Complete the letter by choosing the correct option. 12/15, Kunj Vihar Alipur. 29 March 20xx The Editor (25) _____________________

New Delhi Subject : Adulteration of Milk 

Sir, Through the columns of your esteemed newspaper, I want to raise my concern over the sale of (26)______.

Quite recently, (27) _______________________ took 20 samples of milk from various dairies and reports of 19 indicated that they have been adulterated with urea and other chemicals. These chemicals are very harmful for human beings. (28) _________________________________ such unscrupulous people do not care a fig about human lives. Milk is consumed in different forms by almost all human beings from very young infants and toddlers to elderly people. However, by consuming such sort of milk they are at a great risk, particularly young children and old people. (29) ______________ and give them exemplary punishment. Only then this practice can be checked. (30) __________________ Promila Chopra Q.25:   (a) The Hindustan Times  (b) The Times of India  (c) The Hindu  (d) Any of these

Q.26:   (a) cow milk in Alipur (b) powdered milk in Alipur (c) natural milk in Alipur (d) synthetic milk in Alipur

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.27:   (a) the finance department (b) the health department (c) the GST department (d) the child welfare department

Q.28:   (a) Just to earn a few rupees (b) Just to supply milk quickly 

(c) Just to work at normal speed (d) Just to save taxes

Q.29: (a) The government should request such people (b) The government should ask public to boycott such people (c) The government should act heavily on such people (d) Any of these

Q.30:   (a) Yours obediently (b) Yours lovingly (c) Yours truly (d) Truly yours

Section - C

V. Read the given extract to attempt the questions that follow:  He just felt a bit dizzy. Then he flapped his wings once and he soared upwards. "Ga, ga, ga, Ga, ga, ga, Gawcol- ah," his mother swooped past him, her wings making a loud noise. He answered her with another scream. Then his father flew over him screaming. He saw his two brothers and his sister flying around him curveting and banking and soaring and diving. Then he completely forgot that he had not always been able to fly and commended himself to dive and soar and curve, shrieking shrilly. Q.31: Pick the most appropriate reason why the young gull feel dizzy?  (a) He hadn't eaten anything for a day.  (b) He was dizzy with excitement.  (c) He was wary of heights.  (d) He was flying for the first time.

Correct Answer is Option (a) The young seagull felt very miserable on the ledge as he was alone and his family had already flown away. He was feeling very hungry and had nothing to eat.

Q.32: What do the screams of the seagulls indicate about their mental state?  (a) Elation  (b) Bewilderment  (c) Shock  (d) Protection

Correct Answer is Option (a) His parents were delighted and overjoyed, that is elated, when the young bird started flying. They were not bewildered or shocked (as they knew that he can fly). They were not trying to protect him by flying over him, they were just expressing their joy.

Q.33: What does the poet want to convey to the readers by stating 'he completely forgot that he had not always been able to fly'?  (a) great confidence the young gull had in his skills.  (b) the naturalness of the act of flying for the young gull.  (c) satisfaction and joy of flying together as a family.  (d) the desire of the young gull to leave his fears behind.

Correct Answer is Option (b) Flying is natural to birds. It was just that the young bird learnt it later that the birds are made for flying.

Q.34: Choose the correct option that indicates the order of movements made by the brothers and sisters of the young gull?  (a) The young gull's brothers and sister flew by tilting their wings, rose high, made darting movements and plunged headfirst.  (b) The young gull's brothers and sister flew by plunging headfirst, making darting movements, tilted their wings and rose high.  (c) The young gull's brothers and sister flew with darting movements, tilted their wings, rose high and plunged headfirst.  (d) The young gull's brothers and sister flew by rising high, plunging headfirst, making darting movements and tilting their wings.

Correct Answer is Option (c) Curveting – flying with tilted wings, Banking – quick darting movements, Soaring – rising high in sky, Diving – plunging headfirst into water (to catch fish).

Q.35: The poet uses the phrase "shrieking shrilly". Which of the given options use the same poetic device as used by the poet here?  (a) Sparkling saga  (b) Singing softly  (c) Slippery sloppily  (d) Sneeze silently

Correct Answer is Option (d) ‘Shrieking shrilly’ and ‘Sneeze silently’ are use of alliterations.

VI. Read the given extract to attempt the questions that follow: "It was only when I began to learn that my boyhood freedom was an illusion, when I discovered as a young man that my freedom had already been taken from me, that I began to hunger for it. At first as a student, I wanted freedom only for myself, the transitory freedoms of being able to stay out at night, read what I pleased and go where I chose. Later, as a young man in Johannesburg, I yearned for the basic and honourable freedoms..."

Q.36: Which of these titles convey the thoughts of the author to the readers?  (a) Freedom for Everything  (b) Knowledge about Freedom  (c) Significance of Freedom (d) Realisation of Freedom

Correct Answer is Option (c) The extract explains why freedom is important and what it means to those who are not free. So, significance of Freedom is the correct title for the extract.

Q.37: According to the author, some freedoms are 'transitory'. What does the author want the readers to understand about the nature of such freedoms? (a) The freedoms are momentary and keep changing with time. (b) The definition of freedom is constant but perspectives differ. (c) Freedom means different things to different people. (d) Freedom is not that important after a certain age.

Correct Answer is Option (a) ‘Transitory’ means ‘temporary’ or ‘passing’. So, option (A) that states freedoms as momentary or temporary, and changing with time is correct.

Q.38: The author has used the word 'illusion' in the passage. Below are given four options which also make use of the word 'illusion' but in different senses. Which of these options indicate the same use of the word as by the author?  (a) He was never able to get past the illusion.  (b) The illusion I experienced was quite intriguing.  (c) A large mirror in the room creates an illusion.  (d) I was living under the illusion that this is possible.

Correct Answer is Option (d) In the passage, the narrator had been living a life under a deception or misapprehension – an illusion. This similar meaning is conveyed in option (D).

Q.39: Why did the speaker initially thought about himself and not about the society or nation as a whole? (a) He didn't want to think about the freedom denied to others. 

(b) He was being selfish and was only bothered about himself. (c) He didn't think that freedom denied to him was important for others. (d) He was too young to realise that freedom was denied to others as well.

Correct Answer is Option (d) When he was a young boy, he did not have a wider vision – he was more concerned about his personal freedom. He could not look from other people’s perspective that they too were deprived of freedom in much more important aspects than his boyish perspective.

Q.40: A part of the extract has been paraphrased. Choose the option that includes the most appropriate solution to the blanks in the given paraphrase of the extract. The speaker's belief about freedom, since childhood proved false. It was not until the speaker grew up to be a young man when it (i) ______on him that he was (ii)_______of freedom. Then he began (iii)_________ it. (a) (i) desired (ii) dawned (iii) depriving (b) (i) dawned (ii) deprived (iii) desiring (c) (i) dawned (ii) arrived (iii) desiring (d) (i) arrived (ii) deprived (iii) dawned

Correct Answer is Option (b) Here, Dawned means emergence of a thought, Deprived means denied and Desiring means wanting to have. These meanings best fit the given part of the extract.

VII. Read the given extract to attempt the questions that follow:   But he’s locked in a concrete cell, His strength behind bars, Stalking the length of his cage, Ignoring visitors.

He hears the last voice at night, The patrolling cars, And stares with his brilliant eyes At the brilliant stars Q.41: The fact that the tiger is ‘stalking the length of his cage’ tells us that he is: (a) restless. (b) reckless. (c) resilient. (d) reverent.

Correct Answer is Option (a) The tigers ignore the visitors as they see many visitors coming daily but none of them helps them to get rid of the cage and live a life of freedom.

Q.42: What is the rhyme scheme of the given stanzas? (a) abcb; abcb (b) abcb; abcd (c) abcd; abcd (d) abcd; abcb

Correct Answer is Option (d) In the first four lines, none of them rhymes with the other, so, they follow the rhyme style abcd. In the next four lines, the second and the fourth lines rhyme while first and third don’t rhyme, So, they follow the rhyme style abcb.

Q.43: These stanzas bring out the contrast between: (a) zoos and cities. (b) strength and weakness. (c) freedom and captivity. (d) visitors and patrolling cars.

Correct Answer is Option (c) The life of tigers in jungles (freedom) and zoo (captivity) have been compared and contrasted in the poem.

Q.44: What is the caged tiger NOT likely to say to the visitors?  (a) “Stop staring”.  (b) “Set me free”.  (c) “Join me”.  (d) “Go away”.

Correct Answer is Option (c) The caged tiger may threaten its visitors by saying not to stare or asking them to go away. It may also request its visitors to set him free. But, it is most unlikely to invite them to join him inside the cage.

Q.45: The tiger’s ‘brilliant eyes’ reveal that he: (a) hopes to be free and be in the wild, someday. (b) is looked after well and is nourished and healthy. (c) enjoys staring at the bright stars each night. (d) is well-rested and hence, wide-awake.

Correct Answer is Option (a) The eyes of the tiger are hopeful of getting freedom some time in life and enjoy its freedom in its natural habitat - jungle.

VIII. Read the given extract to attempt the questions that follow:   As she and her husband turned away in terror, the extraordinary chair pushed them both out of the room and then appeared to slam and lock the door after them. Mrs. Hall almost fell down the stairs in hysterics. She was convinced that the room was haunted by spirits and that the stranger had somehow caused these to enter into her furniture. “My poor mother used to sit in that chair,” she moaned! To think it should rise up against me now! The feeling among the neighbours was that the trouble was caused by witchcraft.” Q.46: What was the reason that forced Mrs. Hall to think that the room was haunted by witches and spirits? (a) she could see evil spirits (b) she heard strange noise (c) uncanny things happened there (d) the door slammed shut

Correct Answer is Option (c) Stange things happened in the room like chair was flying in the air on its own etc.

Q.47: Which of these options express the inner feelings of Mrs. hall when the incident described in the passage took place? (a) Stunned and furious (b) Shocked and outraged (c) Outraged and nervous (d) Stunned and agitated

Correct Answer is Option (d) shocked and angry

Q.48: The author has used the word 'hysterics' in the passage. Below are given four options which also make use of the word 'hysterics' but in different senses. Which of these options indicate the same use of the word as by the author? (a) My friend and I were in splits when we saw the clown’s antics. (b) I don’t know why I suddenly felt worried about flying home. 

(c) The sight of blood put the old man in frenzy. (d) The people who had witnessed the accident were spellbound.

Correct Answer is Option (c) This option deals with the same view as hysterics.

Q.49: Here four pairs of events and intended effects are given separated by an arrow. Which of these pairs indicate the cause and effect relationships? (a) Pushed and locked out → hysterical (b) Rising of the chair → moaning (c) Troubled neighbours → witchcraft (d) Stranger → haunted spirits

Correct Answer is Option (a) As Mrs Hall was pushed out of the room, she turned down to hysterics.

Q.50: The neighbours of Mrs. Hall marked the incident as 'witchcraft'. What do they mean by saying this? 

(a) suspicious (b) superstitious (c) nervous wrecks (d) gossip-mongers

IX. Attempt the following. Q.51: Who is the author of "Black Aeroplane"? (a) Liam O’ Flaherty 

(b) Frederick Forsyth (c) Roal Dahl (d) Paulo Coehlo

Correct Answer is Option (b)  The lesson “Black Aeroplane” by Frederick Forsyth reflects on how one's judgement gets distorted due to fantasizing and how it creates problems. 

Q.52: What did the parents of the young seagull threaten him with if he didn’t flew away? (a) to never talk to him (b) to punish him (c) to starve him 

(d) to abandon him

Q.53: What is the irony in the lesson ‘A Letter to God’? (a) Lencho was sad after the hailstorm even though he was the one waiting for a shower (b) Postmaster laughed at Lencho but still helped arrange money for him (c) Lencho blamed the post office employees who in fact helped him (d) There is no irony

Correct Answer is Option (c) Lencho blamed them without knowing the truth.

Q.54: We have achieved our political emancipation." What is the meaning of emancipation? (a) freedom from restriction (b) enslavement (c) slavery (d) Both (b) and (c)

Q.55:  What does the poet compare fire with? (a) hatred (b) desire (c) hot

(d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.56: By "ignoring visitors", what is the poet trying to say? (a) The tiger knows his power is restricted (b) There is no use of showing rage (c) He is less terrorising because of the cage (d) All of the above

Correct Answer is Option (d) The tiger is aware of the fact that it was useless to waste his energy when he was captivated.

Q.57: Why does the poet call it "dust of snow"? (a) The snow particles were too tiny 

(b) They came over him like dust (c) They felt like dust (d) They looked like dust

Correct Answer is Option (a) “Dust of snow” refers to the tiny particles of snow. The particles are so small that poet referred to them as “dust”.

Q.58: Who does "I" refer to in the chapter 'The Triumph of Surgery'? (a) Tricki (b) Mrs. Pumphrey (c) Veterinary surgeon (d) none of the above

Correct Answer is Option (c) The vet surgeon, Dr Herriot is the protagonist.

Q.59: What did the boy ask Anil for? (a) to give him food 

(b) to employ him (c) to give him money (d) to teach him

Correct Answer is Option (b) The boy asked Anil to give him some job as he is not a beggar and does not want money. He wants to earn it.

Q.60: What was Griffin working on? 

(a) Making fake footprints (b) Making human bodies invisible (c) Making a fool of children (d) All of the above

Correct Answer is Option (b) Griffin was conducting a science experiment to make human bodies invisible so that light can pass through them as through glass.

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Class 10 English Sample Paper

Please refer to the Class 10 English Sample Paper below. These CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English have been prepared based on the latest guidelines and examination patterns issued for the current academic year. We have provided Term 1 and Term 2 sample papers with solutions. You can click on the links below and access the free latest CBSE Sample Papers for English for Standard 10. All guess papers for English Class 10 have been prepared by expert teachers. You will be able to understand the type of questions which are expected to come in the examinations and get better marks.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English

Class 10 English Sample Paper Term 1 with Solutions Set A

Read the passage given below. I. Corruption, terrorism, communalism, greed for power and wealth and the list of ailments that affect modern society continue. More than half the population of India is below the age group of 25 and the future of the country will only be bright if youngsters are equipped to deal with these ailments. II. A child is a storehouse of potential and it is important to nurture and develop these attributes since a very young age. Since, they spend much of the time in school, the curriculum in school should be such that it enables children to understand, care and practise ethical values like respect, justice and civic sense. Education should aim to develop a sense of rights and duties as well as moral values like honesty, responsibility and respect for others. III. Moral education should be directed towards enhancing a child’s ability to critically analyse situations, make decisions, empathise with people and work in cooperation towards a common goal. IV. As a means of direct instruction to students, schools are very influential in the character development of a child and the methods of education affect the development of morally upright citizens who can bring about the much needed change in the country. V. The youth of today have to face a lot of problems like drug abuse, violent behaviour and family issues. If they are not taught morals, they would fail to differentiate between good and bad values. Hence, they would be incapable in dealing with different types of issues. A sound moral base would help a child make the right decisions, especially in an era where the youth is increasingly coming under the negative influence of the media. VI. Schools in India have introduced moral education as part of their curriculum because they realise that morally sound citizens are the need of the hour. Since most children look up to their teachers as role models, it is most appropriate that they be the facilitators of moral values. VII. Thus, schools should focus more on the personality development of children since it is one of the most important responsibilities of a school. Schools should take the initiative to mould children into better human beings so that they can make the world a better place to live in. Based on your understanding of the passage, answer any eight out of the ten questions by choosing the correct option.

Question. Select the option that conveys the message in – ‘morally sound citizens are the need of the hour.’ a. Government should take major decisions about spreading moral education. b. Better human beings can make the world a better place to live in. c. Developing moral qualities is the only way to solve these social issues. d. Moral citizens can only be possible by giving moral education to the mass population.

Question. Which moral values are important for children to learn? a. Honesty, violence, responsibility, crime b. Crime, respect for others, bad behaviour, common sense c. Honesty, responsibility, respect for others, civic sense d. Responsibility, crime, respect for others, bad behaviour, civic sense

Question. Why is it important to inculcate moral values since childhood? a. Because children are the future of a country. b. Because they are under constant negative influences of social media. c. Because they have to face many problems in life. d. All of the above

Question. According to the passage, moral education helps children in ……………. , decisionmaking, cooperation and ……………. . a. Critical analysis of situation, empathy b. Acting morally, ethics c. Acting ethically, respecting others d. Analysing the problem, acting as onewishes

Question. According to the author, what, from the following, should be taught to children from childhood? a. Education b. Discipline c. Moral values d. Lawless actions

Question. What kind of problems are being faced by today’s youth? 1. Drug abuse 2. Family issues 3. Violent behaviour 4. Peer pressure 5. Influence of social media a. 1, 2, and 4 b. 3, 4, and 5 c. 1, 3 and 5 d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Question. Select the option with the underlined words that can suitably replace facilitator (paragraph VII). a. Traditionally, for many school learners the physical process of writing is an inhibitor. b. I feel that, between them, they could really make a complete team of penal reformers and crime preventers. c. In a number of developing countries, war has been an additional impediment to progress. d. He is remembered fondly as a mentor and friend by several generations of students in this school.

Question. Choose from the quotes given below which can represent the central idea of the passage. a. “Education without morals is like a ship without a compass, merely wandering nowhere.” – Martin Luther King Jr. b. “People who try hard to do the right thing always seem mad.” – Stephen King c. “A quiet conscience makes one strong” – Anne Frank d. “Our very lives depend on the ethics of strangers and most of us are always strangers to other people.” – Bill Moyers

Question. Select the option that suitably completes the dialogue with reference to paragraph II. Karan: Do you know about the brutal criminal case that happened in our own city? Shyam: Yes, news about this pathetic incident is printed on the front page of today’s newspaper. Karan: Our society is going through an extremely bad phase. The human beings have forgotten their moral qualities. Shyam: Yes, moral education is the only way towards the negativity free human society in the future. ………………… . a. Besides moral education, academic education should also get a priority from the smaller ages. b. Government should take major decisions about spreading moral education. c. Besides academic education, moral education should also get a priority from the smaller ages. d. Okay now I have to go to my tuition class. I will talk to you later.

Question. Assonance is resemblance of sound between syllables of nearby words, arising particularly from the rhyming of two or more stressed vowels, but not consonants (e.g. sonnet, porridge ), but also from the use of identical consonants with different vowels (e.g. killed, cold, culled). From the options given below, select an assonance phrase that appears in the para II. a. Education should aim to develop b. Since a very young age c. A child is a storehouse of potential d. Spend much of the time in school

Read the passage given below.

Through the Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 6, the countries of the world have resolved to achieve universal access to safe drinking water and adequate sanitation and hygiene to all by 2030. The aim is to ensure the consumption of safe drinking water, practice safe sanitation and hygiene, resulting in lower exposure to a contaminated environment, resulting in lower morbidity and mortality, especially amongst children. II. The Swachh Bharat Mission was launched by the Government of India on 2nd October, 2014 to achieve the vision of ‘Swachh Bharat’ by 2nd October, 2019. The Swachh Bharat Mission Gramin-SBM (G) endeavours to accelerate rural sanitation coverage, reduce open defecation and improve management of solid and liquid wastes in rural areas. The implementation of SBM (G) is the responsibility of the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation (MDWS). The MDWS, while issuing guidelines for Open Defecation Free (ODF) verification stressed on “safe technology option which aimed at no contamination of surface soil, ground water or surface water; excreta management inaccessible to flies or animals; no human handling of fresh excreta and freedom from odour and unsightly condition”. Over the past 4 years, over 92 million new households have received access to household toilets and by the end of the SBM G programme, all 16.5 million rural households will have such access. However, the issue is of usage and thus, the goal is to create ODF communities and villages, with no one defecating in the open. III. The status of ODF villages published on the website of MDWS indicates that as on 01.04.2019, over 99% of rural HHs in India have toilet access. The declared ODF villages at all India level accounted to 556,824 spreading over 247,723 Gram Panchayats, 6,031 Blocks and 616 Districts. IV. UNICEF in India accords high priority to the provision of safe sanitation and water services to people in rural areas and has over the past many years aided through catalytic technical support to MDWS, Government of India and 15 state governments in the implementation of the various sanitation programmes and since 2014, specifically to the SBM (G). With the progress of the SBM (G) and declaration of ODF communities, there is an emerging question on whether the campaign to eliminate open defecation and create ODF communities is resulting in the decrease in faecal contamination in the environment. Based on your understanding of the passage, answer any six out of the eight questions by choosing the correct option.

Question. The government is successful in providing access to toilets to over 99% of rural households because ………… . Select the correct option. a. villagers also want to have access to toilets to minimise the negative impact of open defecation. b. villagers are cooperative. c. government is giving false data. d. rural households have become educated.

Question. Select the option that gives the correct meaning of the following statement. “By the end of the SBM-G programme, all 16.5 million rural households will have toilet access.” a. By 2nd October, 2019, there will be villages with no one defecating in open. b. By the end of the programme, rural households will be defecating in open. c. By 2nd October, 2019, there will be enough toilets in the households. d. By the end of the programme, there will be no villages in India with access to toilets.

Question. The passage provides data that proves that ……….. . a. There is an increase in usage of toilets among rural households. b. Over 99% of rural households have access to toilets. c. There is an increased access to toilets among rural households. d. There is a decrease in open defecation.

Question. Select the option what the given sentence refers to. “Over the past 4 years, over 92 million new households have received access to household toilets.” a. There is an increase in building of toilets inside households. b. There is an increase in construction of community-shared toilets. c. There is an increase in usage of toilets among rural households. d. There is an increase in the access to toilets but are not being used by the villagers.

Question. The purpose of the launch of Swachh Bharat Mission (G) was to …………….. . Choose the correct option. 1. accelerate rural sanitation coverage 2. reduce open defecation 3. improve management of solid and liquid wastes in rural areas a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 1 and 3

Question. According to the passage, who is responsible for the progress of Swachh Bharat Mission? a. Open Defecation Free communities and villages b. Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation c. UNICEF d. Sustainable Development Goals

Question. Select the option that is true for the two statements given below. (1) The goal is to create Open Defecation Free (ODF) communities and villages. (2) There will be a decrease in the faecal contamination in the environment. a. (1) is the result of (2). b. (1) is the reason for (2). c. (1) is independent of (2). d. (1) contradicts (2).

Question. On which of the following goals, ODF guidelines are based? 1. Universal access to safe drinking water and adequate sanitation. 2. Lower exposure to a contaminated environment. 3. Lower morbidity and mortality, especially amongst children. a. 1 and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 3

GRAMMAR AND WRITING

Grammar Answer any five out of the six questions by selecting the most appropriate option for each.

Question. Every day I go to school in a bus but today I ………….. by car because the bus operators are on strike. a. am going b. am going to go c. will be gone d. have gone

Question. Is it true that the students from the Space Research Centre …………. this evening? a. was arriving b. are arriving c. is arriving d. were arriving

Question. The kids ………….. really hard for the show. Now, don’t cancel it, please. a. had worked b. has been working c. have worked d. had been working

Question. Choose the correct option to change the following sentence into indirect speech. My friend said to Deepak, “Have you ever been to Agra?” a. My friend told Deepak if he had ever been to Agra. b. My friend asked Deepak had he ever been to Agra? c. My friend asked Deepak if he had ever been to Agra. d. My friend asked Deepak if he have ever been to Agra.

Question. Choose the correct option to change the following sentence into indirect speech. Reema said, “Alas! Karina’s mother is suffering from cancer.” a. Reema exclaimed with sorrow that Karina’s mother was suffering from cancer. b. Reema exclaimed that alas! Karina’s mother was suffering from cancer. c. Reema exclaimed with joy that Karina’s mother was suffering from cancer. d. Reema exclaimed with sorrow that Karina’s mother is suffering from cancer.

Question. ………. of the mango trees in their garden bear fruit twice a year. a. A little b. Much c. More d. Some

Writing Answer any five out of the six questions given, with reference to the context below. You are Amita staying at Sunrise Apartments, Gymkhana Road, Pune, Mumbai. You have to write a letter to the editor of Hindustan Times about the problems faced by residents of the colony due to the three open manholes on the main road leading to your colony.

Question.Choose the most appropriate concluding line for the letter. a. Hoping for an action! b. Hoped to have an action! c. Hoping for an early action! d. Hoping for a severe action!

Question. As per the given options which of the following should come last in the letter? a. Date b. Sender’s address c. Salutation d. Subject

Question. Select the option that correctly shows the subject of the letter. a. Open manholes on the main road b. Problems caused by open manholes c. Problems appearing in Sunrise Apartments, Gymkhana Road, Pune d. Open manholes in Sunrise Apartments, Gymkhana Road, Pune

Question. Which of the following are required by Amita for this letter? 1. Date on which letter is written 2. Expected reply from the editor 3. Informal language 4. Amita’s address 5. Newspaper office address 6. Fees for getting her letter published a. 1, 2 and 4 b. 2, 4 and 6 c. 1, 4 and 5 d. 2, 3 and 5

Question. Which of the following should be the concluding portion in the letter? 1. I would like to request you to publish the issue in your newspaper so that the higher authorities can take an immediate action. 2. You should publish this in your newspaper so that everyone can be aware and avoid coming to this colony at night. a. Yes to option (1) because of its polite tone b. Yes to option (2) because of its authoritative tone c. No to option (1) because of its soft and informal tone d. No to option (2) because of its strict and formal language

Read the given extract to attempt the questions that follow. But in the hearts of all who lived in that solitary house in the middle of the valley, there was a single hope: help from God. “Don’t be so upset, even though this seems like a total loss. Remember, no one dies of hunger.” “That’s what they say: no one dies of hunger.” All through the night, Lencho thought only of his one hope: the help of God,whose eyes, as he had been instructed, see everything, even what is deep in one’s conscience. Lencho was an ox of a man, working like an animal in the fields, but still he knew how to write. The following Sunday, at daybreak, he began to write a letter which he himself would carry to town and place in the mail. It was nothing less than a letter to God. (A Letter to God)

Question. When Lencho thought about the help from God, “whose eyes, as he had been instructed, see everything, even what is deep in one’s conscience”, he meant that…………….. . a. God could help him with money. b. God is omniscient. c. Somebody would send him money if would write a letter to God. d. God can see inside his conscience.

Question. Why was Lencho made to remember that no one dies of hunger? Choose the correct option. a. Because his crops were destroyed by the hail. b. Because he had a loss in business. c. Because he lost all his money in gambling. d. Because somebody burgled his house.

Question.“But in the hearts of all who lived in that solitary house in the middle of the valley” –‘all’ referred to ………….. . a. Lencho b. Post office employees c. Lencho and his family d. None of the above

Question. Select the suitable word from the extract to complete the following. Belief : …………….. : : Isolated : Solitary. a. Heart b. Instructed c. Hope d. Conscience

Question. Why is the term ‘solitary house’mentioned in the above extract? 1. Lencho’s house was the only one in the valley. 2. Lencho’s house was in the end of the valley. 3. Lencho stayed separately in his own house. a. Only 2 is correct b. Only 3 is correct c. Only 1 is correct d. All are correct

Read the given extract to attempt the questions that follow.

The first period was a study period. Maddie tried to prepare her lessons, but she could not put her mind on her work. She had a very sick feeling in the bottom of her stomach. True, she had not enjoyed listening to Peggy ask Wanda how many dresses she had in her closet, but she had said nothing. She had stood by silently and that was just as bad as what Peggy had done. Worse. She was a coward. At least Peggy hadn’t considered they were being mean but she, Maddie, had thought they were doing wrong. She could put herself in Wanda’s shoes. (The Hundred Dresses – II)

Question. Select the most appropriate option for (1) and (2). 1. Maddie could put herself in Wanda’s shoes. 2. Maddie used to wear Peggy’s old dresses after being modified by her mother. a. (1) is true and (2) is false. b. (2) is the opposite of (1). c. Both (1) and (2) cannot be inferred from the extract d. (2) is the cause for (1).

Question. Why did Maddie always remain silent when Wanda was being teased? a. She thought that Wanda deserved that behaviour. b. She felt scared in front of Peggy. c. She thought Peggy would start teasing her. d. She didn’t want to interfere.

Question. From the options given below, identify Maddie’s tone in the extract. a. Dissatisfied b. Scared c. Guilty d. Insulting

Read the given extract to attempt the questions that follow. He stalks in his vivid stripes The few steps of his cage, On pads of velvet quiet, In his quiet rage. He should be lurking in shadow, Sliding through long grass Near the water hole Where plump deer pass. A Tiger in the Zoo

Question. The rhyming scheme of the above extract is ………… . a. Abcb b. Abab c. Abba d. Abcd

Question.‘On pads of velvet quiet’means a. The tiger has velvety paws. b. There is a velvet carpet in his cage. c. The tiger is walking quietly because of his velvety soft paws. d. All of the above

Question. What does the poet mean by ‘he should be lurking in a shadow’? 1. The tiger should be in the jungle hiding in the shadow of long grass. 2. The tiger should hide behind the long grass. 3. The tiger is like a shadow in the dark. a. Only 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. Only 1

Question. Why did Maddie have a very sick feeling in the bottom of her stomach? 1. She was not feeling well. 2. She had an upset stomach due to cafeteria’s lunch. 3. She was feeling guilty for not taking stand for Wanda. 4. She was feeling sad for not stopping Peggy from teasing Wanda. a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 3 and 4 d. 2, 3 and 4

Question. Choose the option which shows the contrast used by the poet between the first four lines and last four lines of the above extract. a. Life in a cage vs life in a jungle b. Life in a zoo vs life in a village c. Life in a village vs life in a cage d. Life in a city vs life in a jungle

Mrs Pumphrey wrung her hands. “Oh I will, Mr Herriot. I’m sure you are right, but it is so difficult, so very difficult.” She set off, head down, along the road, as if determined to put the new regime into practice immediately. I watched their progress with growing concern. Tricki was tottering along in his little tweed coat; he had a whole wardrobe of these coats — for the cold weather and a raincoat for the wet days. He struggled on, drooping in his harness. I thought it wouldn’t be long before I heard from Mrs Pumphrey. The expected call came within a few days. Mrs Pumphrey was distraught. (A Triumph of Surgery)

Question. Choose the option with underlined word that can replace the word ‘wring’ in then above extract. a. They are always trying to take out additional funds from the government. b. On occasions Mr. Parry was seen to twist his hands as he struggled with his emotions. c. One minute they’re all sweet and caring and the next they stab you in the back. d. It was followed by a roaring crash that seemed to rend the very heavens.

Question. What did Mrs. Pumphrey tell Dr. Herriot about Tricki’s health on the call? Complete the conversation between them by choosing the correct option. Mrs. Pumphrey: Hello, Mr. Herriot. ………………… . Mr. Herriot: Oh okay, Mrs. Pumphrey. I am coming to you as soon as possible. 1. Tricki is not eating anything. 2. He is having bouts of vomiting. 3. He spends all his time lying on a rug, panting. 4. He doesn’t want to go for walks, doesn’t want to do anything. a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 2, 3 and 4 c. 1, 3 and 4 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Question. What can we infer about Mrs. Pumphrey’s reaction on Dr. Herriot’s advice? a. Overlooking b. Insulting c. Hurt d. Helpless

Question. Why was it difficult for Mrs. Pumphrey to follow Dr. Herriot’s advice? a. Because she could not deny anything to Tricki. b. According to her, Tricki was suffering from malnutrition. c. As per Mrs. Pumphrey, Tricki needed extra meals between main meals. d. All of the above

Question. Select the most appropriate option based on (1) and (2). (1) Mrs. Pumphrey was overfeeding her dog. (2) Dr. Herriot was concerned about Mrs. Pumphrey and her dog Tricki. a. (2) is true and (1) is false. b. (2) is the result for (1). c. (2) is the cause for (1). d. (2) is false and (1) is true.

Attempt the following.

Question. Why did the poet regret his day in the poem ‘Dust of Snow’? a. Something bad has happened to him. b. He was guilty of something. c. Not mentioned in the poem. d. He was upset because of his family.

Question. Anil in the end of the story …………… . a. gave Hari Singh his final pay. b. gave a fifty rupee note to Hari Singh as his salary. c. gave note to Hari Singh saying the he knew about the robbery. d. gave note to Hari Singh that he had forgiven him for stealing money.

Question. According to Robert Frost, fire and ice are equivalent to ………… in the poem‘Fire and Ice’. a. Human emotions: love and hate b. Hot and cold temperatures of earth c. Self-destructing human emotions: desire and hatred d. All of the above

Question. The poet said, “what is the boy going to do?” in the poem “The Ball Poem”. Why did he ask so? a. Because the boy had lost his ball. b. Because the ball of the boy had fell into water. c. Because the boy had tore his ball. d. Because the boy got a new ball.

Question. Choose which of the following can be associated with the pilot of Dakota plane? a. Risk-taker, determined, family man b. Coward, confused, follower c. Risk-taker, follower, determined d. Foodie, risk-taker, confused

Question. “But no one really thought much about Wanda Petronski, once she sat in the corner of the room.” This means that students of Room Thirteen …………… . a. did not care much about Wanda’s presence. b. did not know who Wanda was. c. did not talk to Wanda. d. did not befriend Wanda.

Question. Mandela says that his boyhood freedom was an illusion because 1. his freedom to live with dignity and self-respect had already been stolen from him without him realising. 2. all the Blacks were deprived of basic humane society. 3. his desire for staying out at night, living on his own conditions were not the actual freedoms. a. Only 1 b. Both 1 and 2 c. 1, 2 and 3 d. None of these

Question. When did the author say the following line? If only Griffin had managed to wake up in good time all might have been well. a. When Griffin was caught by clergyman and his wife. b. When Griffin was caught by the constable Mr. Jaffers. c. When Griffin was caught by the staff of the big London store. d. When landlord threw Griffin out of the house.

Question. The young seagull’smother screamed at himderisively on asking for food because ……… . a. she wanted him to come to her and get her food. b. she wanted him to remain on the ledge. c. she wanted him to feel guilty for not flying with the family. d. she was teasing him with food as he was hungry so that he would fly to her.

Question. Anne Frank wrote her diary while in hiding with her family in Amsterdam during the a. German occupation of the Netherlands in World War II. b. German occupation of the Netherlands in World War I. c. British occupation of South Africa after Anglo-Boer war. d. None of the above

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Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper Term 1 With Solutions Set B

Sample paper class 10 science set d with solutions, sample paper class 10 science set b with solutions.

CBSE Class 10 English Sample Papers 2023 For Term 1 & Term 2

CBSE Class 10 English Sample Papers 2023 For Term 1 & Term 2: Here is the CBSE Class 10 English Term 1 Sample Paper 2023, as well as the marking scheme. The sample paper will tell you how different types of MCQs will be asked in the exam. Practice thoroughly with the CBSE Class 10 English Sample Papers provided in this article to perform well in your Term 1 CBSE Class 10 Examination 2023 For Term 1 & Term 2.

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CBSE Class 10 English Sample Paper 2023 For Term 1

Students can download the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 English along with the solution to the paper in PDF format so that they can use these important resources whenever they choose. By clicking on the links provided in this article, you can download Term 1 Class 10 English Sample Papers.

Class 10 English Language & Literature Term 1 Sample Paper 2023

You will gain an idea of the paper’s difficulty level. The CBSE Class 10 English Marking Scheme will allow you to check the right responses to all questions.

• CBSE Class 10 English Marking Scheme and Solution 2023 PDF for Term 1
• CBSE Class 10 English Term-2 Sample Paper PDF

The students preparing for CBSE Class 10 English Exam must download the official sample paper PDF from the below link and practice the questions as per the pattern released by CBSE. The solutions to the CBSE Class 10 English Sample Paper as set by CBSE Class 10 English Term-2 Syllabus have been provided below along with the solution as released by CBSE- 

• CBSE Class 10 English Term-2 Marking Scheme & Answer Key PDF

Download CBSE Class 10 English Sample Papers 2023 PDF (Latest Pattern)

This latest CBSE Class 10 English Sample Papers was developed using the latest Class 10 grading scheme as well as the official model paper format for 2023.

• CBSE Class 10 English (Language & Literature) Sample Papers 2023

Official Year-Wise CBSE Class 10 English Language & Literature (184) Sample Question Paper

You will be able to find the Class 10 English Sample Question Paper Year-Wise from the below table:

Year-Wise CBSE Class 10 Sample Papers for English Communicative

Also, Check:

• Mathematics Sample Papers for Class 10
• SST Sample Papers for Class 10
• Science Sample Papers for Class 10
• Hindi Sample Papers for Class 10

Importance of Solving CBSE Class 10 English Sample Papers 2023

Some of the benefits that a student gets from practicing the CBSE English Sample Papers are:

• Easy to understand the pattern of questions
• You will be able to manage time 
• You will understand the marking scheme
• Can evaluate your performance

Other Important Links Related To CBSE Class 10 English 2023 For Term 1 & Term 2

• Class 10 English NCERT Solutions
• Class 10 English Syllabus
• CBSE Class 10 English Grammar
• Class 10 English Notes
• Class 10 English Previous Year Papers

We have covered the detailed guide on English Class 10 Sample Papers 2023 For Term 1 & Term 2. Feel free to ask any questions in the comment section below.

FAQ: CBSE Class 10 English Sample Papers 2023 For Term 1 & Term 2

Can i download year-wise cbse class 10 english sample papers for free.

Yes, you can download CBSE Year-Wise Class 10 English Sample Papers for free.

Is it important to read CBSE Class 10th English Sample Papers?

Yes, CBSE Class 10th English Sample Papers are one of the most important materials for studying. You can refer to the above article to know the benefits of solving the CBSE Board Sample Paper Class 10.

Do questions repeat in the Class 10 English Exam?

Yes, sometimes questions do repeat in the Class 10 English Exam.

Is Class 10 English hard?

The CBSE Class 10 English paper was overall easy and a couple of students said that it was much easier than last year’s paper.

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CBSE Board Exams 2024: Class 10 English sample paper; marking scheme

Cbse class 10 sample paper is available on the official website, cbseacademic.nic.in..

NEW DELHI : For the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) board exams 2024, Class 10 English sample paper is available. Students can download the CBSE sample paper 2023-24 Class 10 from the official website, cbseacademic.nic.in.

Latest: CBSE Class 10th Sample Papers

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According to the sample paper, the exam will be conducted for a duration of three hours and a total of 80 marks. The question paper will include three sections - reading, grammar and writing, and literature.

Section A will carry a total of 20 marks and consist of two questions with 10 marks each. Section B will also carry 20 marks and include three questions. Section C will carry 40 marks.

CBSE Class 10 English marking scheme

The question paper will have 11 questions in total and all questions are compulsory. There will be no overall choices, however, an internal choice will be provided in two questions in Section C and four questions in section D.

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Class 10 Science Answer key 2023, CBSE Set 1,2,3 PDFs Solutions

Class 10 Science Answer key- Students can match their answers with the most accurate CBSE Class 10 Science Answer Key 2023 prepared by the expert facilities of Adda247. 

Table of Contents

Class 10 is one of the most important periods of a student’s life where they decide which stream to choose after passing the 10th examination. As passing the examination of class 10 is important to getting into their desirous stream, it is of utmost importance to have a good grasp on all the subjects. Science is one of the key subjects that many students find difficult. Below, we have mentioned the answer keys for the class 10 science subject. The answer key is available for all sets in PDF form along with the solutions. Students should go through the answer key given below to prepare themselves better for such questions in the next session.

Class 10 Science Answer Key

Class 10 Science Answer Key: The Central Board of Secondary Education is all set to conduct the CBSE Class 10 Science Exam on 4th March 2023. After completion of the examination, we will upload the unofficial Class 10 Science Answer Key on this page. Class 10 Science Answer Key is error-free and prepared by the expert faculties of Adda247. Instead of visiting different websites stay tuned with us and match your responses with the Class 10 Science Answer Key provided on this page. Bookmark this page to get the Class 10 Answer Key of all the subjects. 

Check Out: CBSE Class 10 All Subject Answer keys 2023

Science Answer Key Class 10 & Exam Paper Analysis 2023

The CBSE Class 10 Science Exam 2023 was successfully administered by the Central Board of Secondary Education today. The three-hour exam was conducted in a single shift from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM.

• The Class 10 Science question paper was a mix of average and moderately easy.
• The syllabus was followed for every question. The textbook was the source of roughly 70–80% of the questions.
• The paper might be easily completed by the students ahead of the scheduled time duration. The allocation of the questions offers a consistent distribution of points for knowledge, application, evaluation, and other skills. MCQs were simple and generally of moderate difficulty.
• Students can respond to case-based questions that are evenly distributed and range in difficulty from easy to moderate.

Science Class 10 Answer Key 2023 Students Reviews

Following today’s exam’s conclusion, stay updated with us for our analysis of the question papers and students’ responses. Students’ perspectives on the science paper from today are diverse. Initial reactions indicated that the science article was moderate to easy. Although majority of the questions were based on the NCERT, some students found the paper difficult. to be extensive. Section-D was the most difficult of the five portions to complete. The easiest section was Section-A.

Class 10 Science Question Paper 2023 PDF Set 1

class 10 science question paper 2023 pdf set 1 is given below.

Science Class 10 Board Paper 2023 with Answers Key

Here we have provided the Option Numbers of Class 10 Science Answer Key 2023 Set 1. Candidates who got the Class 10 Science Set 1 Question Paper can cross-check their Answers with the Class 10 Science Answer Key 2023 Set 1

CBSE Class 10 Science Question Paper Set 2

Class 10 science answer key 2023 set 2.

Here we have provided the Option Numbers of Class 10 Science Answer Key 2023 Set 1. Candidates who got the Class 10 Science Set 2 Question Paper can cross-check their Answers with the Class 10 Science Answer Key 2023 Set 2

CBSE Class 10 Science Answer Key 2023 Set – 3

1. When aqueous solutions of potassium iodide and lead nitrate are mixed, an insoluble substance separates out. The chemical equation for the reaction involved is:

(a) KI+PbNO3 –> PbI + KNO3

(b) 2KI+Pb(NO3)2 –> PbI2 + 2KNO3

(c) KI+PbNO3)2 –> PbI + KNO3

(d) KI+PbNO3 –> PbI2 + KNO3

Answer: (b) 2KI+Pb(NO3)2 –> PbI2 + 2KNO3

2. When Sodium bicarbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid, the gas evolved is:

(a) Hydrogen; it gives pop sound with burning match stick.

(b) Hydrogen; it turns lime water milky.

(c) Carbon dioxide; it turns lime water milky.

(d) Carbon dioxide; it blows off a burning match stick with a pop sound.

Answer: (c) Carbon dioxide; it turns lime water milky.

3. Acid present in tomato is:

(a) Methanoic acid

(b) Acetic Acid

(c) Lactic acid

(d) Oxalic acid

Answer: (d) Oxalic acid

4. A metal ribbon ‘X’ burns in oxygen with a dazzling white flame forming a white ash ‘Y’. The correct description of X, Y and the type of reaction is:

(a) X=Ca;Y=CaO; Type of Reaction = Decomposition

(b) X=Mg;Y=MgO; Type of Reaction = Combination

(c) X=Al;Y=Al2O; Type of Reaction = Thermal Decomposition

(d) X=Zn;Y=ZnO; Type of Reaction = Endothermic

Answer: (b) X=Mg;Y=MgO; Type of Reaction = Combination

5. The name of the salt used to remove permanent hardness of water is:

(a) Sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO3)

(b) Sodium chloride (NaCl)

(c) Sodium carbonate decahydrate (Na2CO3.10H20)

(d) Calcium sulphate hemihydrate (CaSO4.1/2H20)

Answer: (c) Sodium carbonate decahydrate (Na2CO3.10H20)

Science Class 10 Answer Key 2023

Select and write one most appropriate option out of the four options.

• Metal oxides generally react with acids but few oxides of metal also react with bases. Such metallic oxides are-

I. MgO II. ZnO III. Al2O3 IV. CaO

a) I and II b) II and III c) III and IV d) I and IV

Answer- b) II and III

• Select the appropriate state symbols of the products given as X and Y in the following chemical equation by choosing the correct option from the table given below-

Zn(S) + H2 SO4 —— ZnSO 4 + H2

(X) (Y) a) (s) (l) b) (aq) (g) c) (aq) (s) d) (g) (aq) Answer- b)

• Few drops of an aqueous solution of ammonium chloride are put on a universal indicator paper. The paper turns pink. Study the following table and choose the correct option-

Nature Ammonium Chloride is a salt of Range of pH a) Acidic weak acid and strong base less than 7 b) Basic weak acid and weak base more than 7 c) Acidic strong acid and weak base less than 7 d) Basic strong acid and strong base 7 Answer- c)

• Two salts “X” and “Y” are dissolved in water separately. When phenolphthalein is added to these two solutions, solution “X” turns pink and solution “Y” does not show any change in colour, therefore “X” and “Y” are-

• In the given diagram of closed stomata. (1), (2), (3), and (4) respectively are-

a) nucleus, chloroplast, guard cell, vacuole b) nucleus, chloroplast, vacuole, guard cell c) chloroplast, nucleus, vacuole, guard cell d) vacuole, guard cell, nucleus, chloroplast

Correct Answer- b)

•Walking in a straight line and riding a bicycle are activities which are possible due to a part of the brain. Choose the correct location and name of this part from the given table.

Part of the Brain Name a) Fore Brain Cerebrum b) Mid Brain Hypothalamus c) Hind Brain Cerebellum d) Hind Brain Medulla Correct Answer- c)

• In an experiment with pen plants, a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with pure short plant (tt). The ratio of pure tall plant to pure short plant in F2 generation will be

a) 1:3 b) 3:1 c) 1:1 d) 2:1

• A student wants to obtain an erect image of an object using a concave mirror of 10 cm focal length. What will be the distance of the object from mirror?

a) Less than 10 cm

c) between 10 cm and 20 cm

d) more than 20 cm

Correct Answer- a)

• Bronze is an alloy of

a) Copper and Zinc

b) Aluminium and Tin

c) Copper, Tin, and Zinc

d) Copper and Tin

Correct Answer- d)

CBSE Class 10 Science Answer Key 2023

Here we have provided the miscellaneous information of the CBSE Class 10 Science Answer Key. The students who appeared in the science examination must check the information given in the table below: 

Class 12 Board Science Question Paper 2023 comprises five sections for an overall score of 80. Check out the below mark distribution for the Class 12 Board Science Question Paper 2023.

Section A consists of 20 objective-type questions carrying 1 mark each. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the range of 30 to 50 words. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the range of 50 to 80 words Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the range of 80 to 120 words. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

Expected Class 10 Science Board Exam Paper 2023

Class 10 Science Question Papers 2023 PDF Download

After Completion of the Exam, here we will provide the CBSE Class 10 Science Question Papers 2023 Pdf. Candidates may download Class 10 Science Question Papers and analyze the Class 10 Science Answer key to calculate their expected scores.

CBSE Class 10 Science Question Paper Solution

Students should be searching for the right solutions to every question in the CBSE Class 10 Science paper once the exam is done. The questions and answers are continually being drafted by Adda247 Experts. Following the conclusion of the exam, you can use the Question Paper Solution to verify all of the right answers.

Also check: CBSE Class 10 English Answer Key 2023

CBSE Class 10 Science Exam Analysis 2023

The CBSE Class 10 Science exam will be held between 10:30 and 01:30. The students can check CBSE Class 10 Science Exam Analysis 2023 after the completion of the examination. In CBSE Class 10 Science Exam Analysis 2023, we will assess the question paper based on the errors in questions, out of syllabus questions, and difficulty level of the question paper

Class 10 Science Answer Key Last year

Q.1 (a)What is the ozone? how is it formed in the upper layer of the earth’s atmosphere? how does ozone affect our ecosystem? 

Ozone: Ozone is a pale blue gas composed of three oxygen atoms bonded together. It occurs naturally high up in the Earth’s atmosphere, where it protects the surface from harmful ultraviolet (UV) rays unless dissipated by natural or human phenomena. It is also considered a pollutant with adverse effects for humans and other creatures when present closer to the ground.

Ozone is formed in the upper atmosphere by the reaction of ultraviolet UV radiations on oxygen O2 molecule. The damage to ozone layer is a cause of concern to us as due to its damage more ultraviolet rays reach the earth’s surface causing various health hazards. cause of this damage is the presence of large amount of chlorofluorocarbons in the atmosphere.

The biggest damage that ground-level ozone can do, aside from having implications to our own health, is that of the damage that it can do to plants, wildlife and the ecosystems on the planet.

Among the detrimental effects that ozone pollution can cause are:

• Plants experiencing a reduction in photosynthesis, a process whereby sunlight is turned into the energy that allows them to grow and live.
• Plants, trees and vegetations also suffering from a slower growth rate.
• Furthermore, all plant life will have a reduced chance of fighting off disease, insects, other pollutants and harsh weather.

Q. 1(b)(i) List two human-made ecosystems?

Garden and pond are man-made ecosystems.

Q.1(b)(ii) we do not have to clean the pond in the same manner as we do in an aquarium. Give a reason to justify this statement?

Ponds and lakes are natural ecosystems and they contain decomposers. Decomposers act as cleansing agents here, whereas an aquarium is an artificial ecosystem, it does not contain decomposers that cleanse it.

An aquarium is an artificial ecosystem that is an incomplete ecosystem when compared to a pond or lake which is a natural and complete ecosystem. Hence, an aquarium needs to be cleaned periodically.

Artificial Ecosystem: The artificial ecosystem includes dams, gardens, parks which are made by humans. The zoos, aquariums and botanical gardens are examples of artificial ecosystems which are maintained with the objective of conserving biodiversity. The plants and animals are placed in well-protected areas similar to their natural habitats.

Natural Ecosystem: Forests, lakes and deserts are the natural ecosystems. These are formed naturally without any human intervention. It refers to a community of living and non-living organisms interacting with each other through physical, biological and chemical processes.

Q. 2 (a)(i) Name and state the rule to determine the direction of force experienced by a current-carrying straight conductor placed in a uniform magnetic field which is perpendicular to it.  

Fleming’s Left-Hand rule gives the direction of force experienced by a current-carrying straight conductor placed in a magnetic field which is perpendicular to it. Fleming’s Right-Hand rule gives the direction of current induced in a coil due to its rotation in a magnetic field.

Q.2(a)(ii) An alpha particle while passing through a magnetic field gets projected towards north. In which direction will an electron project when it passes through the same magnetic field ?

By Fleming’s Left-hand rule,

Keeping the thumb, forefinger and middle finger in the mutually perpendicular directions. The middle finger represents the direction of the current (in the direction of motion of positive charge: towards the West), the thumb represents the force (towards the  North), then the forefinger represents the direction of the field (upward)

The direction of the Magnetic field will be upward.

Q.2(b) (i) What is a solenoid?

A solenoid is a device comprised of a coil of wire, the housing and a moveable plunger (armature). When an electrical current is introduced, a magnetic field forms around the coil which draws the plunger in. More simply, a solenoid converts electrical energy into mechanical work.

• The coil is made of many turns of tightly wound copper wire. When an electrical current flows through this wire, a strong magnetic field/flux is created.
• The housing, usually made of iron or steel, surrounds the coil concentrating the magnetic field generated by the coil.
• The plunger is attracted to the stop through the concentration of the magnetic field providing the mechanical force to do work.

Q.2(b)(ii) Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines of the magnetic field produced by a solenoid through which a steady current flows.

A solenoid is a long coil that contains a large number of close turns of insulated copper wire. Its ends are connected to a battery B through a switch X.

The magnetic field lines inside a solenoid are in the form of parallel straight lines. This pattern of field lines inside the solenoid indicates that the strength of the magnetic field is uniform (same at all points).

Q.3(a) What is variation? List two main reasons that may lead to variation in a population.

variation , in biology, any difference between cells, individual organisms, or groups of organisms of any species caused either by genetic differences (genotypic variation) or by the effect of environmental factors on the expression of the genetic potentials (phenotypic variation).

Major causes of variation include mutations, gene flow, and sexual reproduction.

• DNA mutation  causes genetic variation by altering the genes of individuals in a population.
• Gene flow  leads to genetic variation as new individuals with different gene combinations migrate into a population.

Q.3(b)(i) In a cross between violet flowered plants and white flowered plants, state the characteristics of the plants obtained in the F1 progeny.

A Mendelian’s experiment consists of breeding a pea plant bearing violet flowers with pea plant that bear white flowers.

The intermediate colours do not get a chance to appear in the offspring of cross-pollinated pea plants.

The result in f1 progeny will be violet flower because it is dominant over the white flower.

Q.3(b)(ii) If the plants of F1 progeny are self-pollinated, then what would be observed in the plants of F2 progeny? 

In the F2 progeny, one-quarter of the plants are short and the rest are tall. It has 1:2:1 ratio of TT, Tt And tt trait combinations.

• F1 is the first generation of hybrid. This is also known as the first filial generation.
• This generation resembles exactly one of the parental types.
• The F2 progeny is obtained by making self-pollination between the F1 progeny.
• Two F1 progenies selected are self-pollinated and the F2 progeny is obtained and it can’t be cross-pollinated.

Q.3(b)(iii) If 100 plants are produced in F2 progeny, then how many plants will show the recessive trait?

75% Violet (recessive)

Q.4 (a) Which of the following flowers will have a higher possibility of self-pollination? 

Mustard, Papaya, Watermelon, Hibiscus 

Hibiscus: hibiscus, (genus  Hibiscus ), genus of numerous species of herbs, shrubs, and trees in the mallow family (Malvaceae) that are native to warm temperate and tropical regions. Several are cultivated as ornamentals for their showy flowers, and a number are useful as fibre plants.

Q.4(b)List the two reproductive parts of a bisexual flower. 

Two Reproductive Parts of Bisexual of Flower: They are stamens and carpels.

• Stamens: Male reproductive part. In produces pollen grains in anther.
• Carpel: Female Reproductive part. It has three parts – stigma, style, ovary.
• Stigma: It receives pollen grains.
• Style: Through it pollen tube passes into ovule.
• Ovary: It contains ovules that contain egg cell.

Q.5 (a) Name the process shown below and define it

Regeneration: The process by which some organisms replace or restore lost or amputated body parts.

5.(b) Name the types of cells present in the organisms which exhibit this process. 

Regeneration occurs in organisms like hydra, flatworms, tapeworms. They have highly adaptive regenerative capabilities. When an organism is wounded, its cells are activated and the damaged tissues and organs are remodelled back to the original state.

Q.6: What is a Döbereiner triad ? Why can’t the following three elements form such a triad?  

N (14); P (31); As (75) 

(Atomic masses are given in parenthesis) 

Döbereiner triad: Dobereiner’s triads were groups of elements with similar properties that were identified by the German chemist Johann Wolfgang Dobereiner. He observed that groups of three elements (triads) could be formed in which all the elements shared similar physical and chemical properties.

Dobereiner stated in his  law of triads  that the arithmetic mean of the atomic masses of the first and third element in a triad would be approximately equal to the atomic mass of the second element in that triad. He also suggested that this law could be extended for other quantifiable properties of elements, such as density.

The first of Dobereiner’s triads was identified in the year 1817 and was constituted by the alkaline earth metals calcium, strontium and barium. Three more triads were identified by the year 1829. These triads are tabulated below.

Triad can be only when the middle element is having mean atomic weight of other two elements  , which N (14); P (31); As (75)  does not have such triad .

Q.7 The molecular formulae of two alkynes, A and B are CxH2 and C3Hy respectively. (a) Find the values of x and y.

(b) Write the names of A and B.

a)i) C 2 H 2(value of x is 2)

( i i ) C 3 H 4(value of y is 4)

b)The name of C2H2 is Ethyne.

The name of C3H4 is Cyclopropene

Q.8 (a) Name the group of organisms which form in the first trophic level of all food chains. Why are they called so? 

The first and lowest level contains the producers, green plants. The plants or their products are consumed by the second-level organisms—the herbivores, or plant eaters

(b) Why are the human beings most adversely affected by bio-magnification? 

Biomagnification makes humans more prone to cancer, kidney problems, liver failure, birth defects, respiratory disorders, and heart diseases.

(c) State one ill-effect of the absence of decomposers from a natural ecosystem. 

Bacteria and fungi play the role of decomposers. Decomposers break down the complex organic substances of garbage, dead animals, and plants into simpler inorganic substances that go into the soil and are used up again by the plants. In the absence of decomposers recycling of material in the biosphere will not take place which would lead to the accumulation of dead plants and animals in the environment. Additionally, the environment would be finally sapped of all its resources which are needed to maintain and sustain life.

Q:9 (a) (i) Define Electric Power and write its SI unit. 

Electric power is the rate at which electric energy is transferred by an electric circuit. The SI unit of power is the watt, one joule per second. It is the rate of doing work, measured in watts, and represented by the letter  P . The electric power in watts produced by an electric current  I  consisting of a charge of  Q  coulombs every  t  seconds passing through an electric potential (voltage) difference of  V  is P =  work done per unit time  = t V Q ​ = V I where, Q  is electric charge in coulombs t  is time in seconds I  is electric current in amperes V  is electric potential or voltage in volts.

Q:9(ii) Two bulbs rated 100 W; 220 V and 60 W; 220 V are connected in parallel to an electric main of 220 V. Find the current drawn by the bulbs from the mains. 

Given parameters

Potential difference (V) = 220 V

Power of lamp 1 (P 1 ) = 100 W

Power of lamp 2 (P 2 ) = 60 W

Both the bulbs are connected in parallel. Therefore, the potential difference across each of them will be 220 V, because no division of voltage occurs in a parallel circuit.

We know that

Power = Voltage x Current

I 1  = P 1 /V

I 1  = 100/220

I 1  = 5/11 A

I 2  = P 2 /V

I 2  = 60/220

I 2  = 3/11 A

Net current (I) = I 1  + I 2

I = 5/11 + 3/11

I = 0.7273 A

Hence, current drawn from the line is 0.727 A

Q.9:(b) (i) State Joule’s law of heating. Express it mathematically when an appliance of resistance R is connected to a source of voltage V and the current I flows through the appliance for a time t. 

State Joule’s law of heating: Joule’s law of heating states that, when a current ‘i ‘ passes through a conductor of resistance ‘r’ for time ‘t’ then the heat developed in the conductor is equal to the product of the square of the current, the resistance and time.

Hint :  To answer this question, we have to use the formula for the power developed in a conductor when a current is passed through it. Then using the formula of energy in terms of power, we will get the required expression of Joule’s law of heating. Complete step by step answer We know that when a voltage is applied across a conductor, current flows through it. This current is constituted by the free electrons flowing within the conductor. While flowing they collide with other electrons, and also with the atoms of the conductor. This collision results in the generation of heat. We all have experienced this heating in our day to day life. Whenever an electrical appliance is used for a long time, then it gradually gets heated up. Joule found that the power of this heating, also called the rate of heating of the electrical conductor, is equal to the square of the current and also to the resistance, that is, P = I 2 R  ………….(1) Now, we know that the energy is related to the power by E = P t From (1) E = I 2 R t Since the power is the power of heating, the energy obtained is the heat energy. So we get the mathematical expression for Joule’s law of heating as H = I 2 R t . Note The Joule heating is also known as Ohmic heating, or the resistive heating. This law finds its application in many of the electrical devices used. In electric fuses, this law is applied to find the current required for melting the fuse in order to break the circuit in emergency. An incandescent bulb glows when its filament is heated. This heating is governed by Joule heating.

Q.9(b)(ii) A 5Ω resistor is connected across a battery of 6 volts. Calculate the energy that dissipates as heat in 10 s.

According to formula V= R I SO. I= V/R where v voltage, i current ,, R resistance.. SO

I = 6/5 = 1.2

For energy dissipated , Use R= I*V

WHERE I= ∆q/∆t …….. 1.2

= ∆q/∆t…….. ∆q = 1.2×10.

= 12 ….. So,

R= ∆q*V/∆t.. 12×6 = 72

Q.10 (a) Calculate the resistance of a metal wire of length 2 m and area of cross-section 1.55 x 10-6 m2. (Resistivity of the metal is 2.8 x 10-8 m) 

Q.10(b) Why are alloys preferred over pure metals to make the heating elements of electrical heating devices ? 

Alloys generally have high melting point as compared to the individual elements. The electrical heating devices must have high melting point so that they do not melt even at high temperature when an electrical current passes through the device. Thus alloys are used in electrical heating device.

Q.12(b)(i) Write molecular formula of benzene and draw its structure. 

The structural representation of benzene is as shown in the figure below. The chemical formula for benzene is C 6 H 6 , i.e it has 6 hydrogen- H atoms and six-carbon atoms and has an average mass of about 78.112. The structure has a six-carbon ring which is represented by a hexagon and it includes 3-double bonds. The carbon atoms are represented by a corner that is bonded to other atoms.

Q.12(b)(ii) Write the number of single and double covalent bonds present in a molecule of benzene. 

Six  single bonds between Carbons and Hydrogens,  three  single bonds between  six  Carbons and Hydrogens ( alternatively) .  Three  double bonds present between carbons ( alternatively in hexagonal ring). So a total of  nine  single bonds,  three  double bonds are present in benzene ring.

Q.(12)(iii) Which compounds are called alkynes?

n is 4, so the compound verifies the chemical formula for alkanes.

Q.13(a) List two advantages of adopting the atomic number of an element as the basis of classification of elements in the Modern Periodic Table. 

Properties of elements depend upon number of valence electrons which depend upon electronic configuration. Atomic number is needed to write electronic configuration of an element. It shows that atomic number is more important to determine chemical properties of elements than atomic mass.

Q.13(b) Write the electronic configuration of the elements X(atomic number 13) and Y(atomic number 20)

The atomic number of  X = 20

The electronic configuration of  X = 2 , 8 , 8 , 2

Since the valence shell of  X  contains two electrons in the valence shell. Therefore, it loses two-electron to attain noble gas configuration and forms a dispositive ion.

The atomic number of  Y = 17

The electronic configuration of  Y = 2 , 8 , 7

Since the valence shell of  Y  contains seven electrons in the valence shell. Therefore, it gains one electron to attain noble gas configuration and form an anion.

Hence, one atom of  X  combines with two atoms of  Y  to form a compound  X Y 2 .

Since the bond is formed by the complete transfer of electrons. So, the bond is ionic in nature.

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Where can I get the Class 10 Science Answer Key 2023?

On this page, you will get the Class 10 Science Answer Key 2022, match your responses with the answer key, and calculate your marks.

Does the CBSE publish an official Answer Key for Class 10 Science?

The CBSE Board did not inform yet about the official answer key of Class 10 Science. When the board will publish the official answer key we will update the same here.

What is the subject code of CBSE Class 10 Science?

The subject code of CBSE Class 10 Science is 086.

When will CBSE Class 10 Science Exam takes place?

The Central Board of Secondary Education is all set to conduct the CBSE Class 10 Science Exam on 4th March 2023.

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Teachoo Sample Paper 1 - English Class 11

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Question 2 (viii) - Teachoo Sample Paper 1 - English Class 11 - Solutions to CBSE Sample Paper - English Class 11 - English Class 11

Last updated at Nov. 24, 2023 by Teachoo

Read the following text.

What are the four pillars of the International Monetary Fund's (IMF) Medium-Term Strategy, as mentioned in the passage?

• A) Strengthening the IMF's role, addressing climate change, promoting gender equality, and fostering digital transformation.
• B) Enhancing engagement on structural and social issues, supporting the recovery from the COVID-19 pandemic, promoting diversity and inclusion, and modernizing operations and governance.
• C) Providing financial support to member countries, conducting surveillance and policy advice, publishing reports and data, and addressing global economic challenges.
• D) Strengthening the IMF's role in a more interconnected world, fostering digital transformation, promoting gender equality, and enhancing cooperation and communication.

Answer as written by the student:

The correct answer is B) Enhancing engagement on structural and social issues, supporting the recovery from the COVID-19 pandemic, promoting diversity and inclusion, and modernizing operations and governance.

Step-by-Step explanation of the answer:

The four pillars of the IMF’s Medium-Term Strategy are:

• to strengthen the IMF’s role in a more interconnected and multipolar world,
• to enhance the IMF’s engagement on structural and social issues,
• to foster a more diverse and inclusive IMF, and
• to modernise the IMF’s operations and governance. 📌

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Class 5 Environmental Science Model Paper Punjab Board 2024: View and download here the PSEB English Model paper for the upcoming class 5th board examination 2023-24 in PDF format.

PSEB Punjab Board Class 5th Environmental Science  Model Test Paper 2024:  The Punjab School Education Board (PSEB) has released the sample papers for class 5 Environmental Science subject. The 2023-24 exam session is approaching its end, and it's time to begin preparing for the term-end board exams. The optimal way is to learn the syllabus by heart and practise with the official sample papers.

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